Saturday, December 24, 2011

Public Debate: Did Christ redeem all mankind?

Recently, I wrapped up a public, formal debate called "Particular Atonement" at the Christian Forums. I post there as "MrPolo." My position is that Christ's sacrifice made ransom for all mankind in their futile bondage to sin (i.e. Unlimited Atonement). In other words, when Scripture says "For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life" (John 3:16) I understand the "world" and "whoever" to mean all persons in humanity.

The other gentleman in the debate took a "5-point" Calvinist's position, which says God ordains some to heaven and some to hell, and Christ's sacrifice was therefore limited in effect only to those who go to heaven (i.e. Limited or Particular Atonement). In other words, when Scripture says "For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life" (John 3:16) he understands the "world" and "whoever" to mean only persons God ordains to heaven without regard to any response, merit, or attribute in those persons.


Merry Christmas. :)


Related post: See the papacy debate here.

7 comments:

  1. It is true that Christ died for all but the benefit of His death and resurrection for sin is only beneficial to those who believe in Him.

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  2. Right - in a certain sense, Christ's work is finally appropriated only to those who go to heaven. But our debate was not about the atonement's final appropriation, but whether or not all mankind was redeemed from a futile position to a position where anyone could make it to heaven if they cooperated with the graces given them.

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  3. Do you believe an unsaved man can believe in Christ without the Father calling him? Is there anything an unsaved man can do on his own to believe?

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  4. No. Man's free will, without the grace of God, cannot move himself into justification.

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  5. So we agree that salvation is all of God including the ability to believe?

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  6. Yes, though He does not violate our free will.

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  7. If a man is of the elect (Eph 1:4-5) does God violate his freewill?

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